After reading over and over again, I thought that Sartre had placed the woman in ‘Bad Faith’ before she had even arrived on the date. Is this because the woman had agreed to go on the date, so therefore this placed her in ‘bad faith’ automatically, because Sartre says the woman knew from the beginning the mans intentions of the woman.

I have to agree with you all; on the comments about the woman not being in ‘bad faith’ because I feel that she is actually not in ‘bad faith’ at all. Could we argue that the man is the one in ‘bad faith’ for thinking and having intentions that he had from the beginning for the woman during the date. I think the thoughts the man is having for the woman on the date are a lot shoddier than the woman agreeing to go on the date in the first instance. Would this idea place the man in ‘bad faith’ according to Sartre?

When discussing the ideas in class I thought if we were to switch the roles of the man and woman on the first date, would Sartre have the same out come and thoughts? I personally think that Sartre would think that the man would not be in ‘bad faith’ as the woman was perceived. Is this because the man and woman have different expectations of the date, so therefore the mans expectations would not put him in ‘bad faith’ even if his thoughts and intentions were far worse than the thoughts of the woman.